OK first of all let me just say that I am NOT trying to start a flame war over here This is a question that has been bugging me for a while since a non-believer friend of mine quoted this passage as evidence that the Bible and Christianity in general is “sexist and intolerant”. I was at a loss as to what to tell him. Obviously God and Paul was / are not sexist! But there has got to be a reason why the Bible says this right? I'm hoping that some of you fine people can shed some light on the subject.

The full quote from 1 Corinthians 33 – 35 goes something like:

“As in all the congregations of the saints, women should remain silent in the Church. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says. If they want to enquire about something, they should ask their own husband at home; for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the Church.”

Yikes! I don't think I would like church NEARLY as much if the women (and girls) were not allowed to talk (and sing!!) as I know I am continually blessed by all of you. So what does this mean?

In my NIV study Bible there is a note on this verse that basically says this is not a hard and fast rule that applies still but was more based on the culture of the times. According to the note, at that time in history it was considered disgraceful for women to speak in public and that Paul's concern was that members of the church not be construed as being disrespectful to one another wihtin the context of their culture. Although – Paul makes a statement in 1 Cor. 11:5 that seems at odds with this perspective when he says “In the Lord however, woman is not independent of man, nor is a man independent of woman”.

So, what gives? If people quote this passage as a point against Christianity, what is the proper response for such a situation?

- Rhino

rhino, per last night's convo:

At first glance, this seems to be a blanket command that women are not allowed to speak at all in the church. However, 1 Corinthians 11:5 mentions women praying and prophesying in the church and does not condemn it. Therefore, 1 Corinthians 14:33-35 must not be an absolute command for women to always be silent in church.

The context of this passage, and much of 1 Corinthians, is the order and structure of the church. The Corinthian church was noted for the chaos and lack of order that was rampant in that assembly (v. 33). It is interesting that no elders or pastors are mentioned, and the prophets were not even exercising control (see vv. 29, 32, 37). Everyone was participating with whatever expression they desired “whenever” they desired. This included tongues and prophesying by women who were taking the lead in the services instead of being submissive, as God’s Word makes clear (1 Tim 2:11-15). Apparently, certain women in the Corinthian church were out of order in disruptively asking questions publicly in the chaotic services. It is not coincidental that many modern churches that have tongues-speaking and claim gifts of healings and miracles also permit women to lead worship, preach, and teach. Women may be gifted teachers, but they are not permitted by God “to speak” in such a manner in His churches. In fact, for them to do so is “shameful,” meaning “disgraceful” (v. 35).

The context of 1 Corinthians 14:33-35 is talking about interpreting and understanding the gifts of tongues and prophecy (1 Corinthians 14:26-32). Therefore, 1 Corinthians 14:34 is not commanding women to be absolutely silent in the church all the time. It is only saying that women should not participate when tongues and/or prophecy is being interpreted and tested (1 Thessalonians 5:19-22; 1 John 4:1). This is in agreement with 1 Timothy 2:11-12 which says that women should not teach or have authority over men. If women were involved in deciding whether a prophecy was truly from God, they would be disobeying what the Bible says in 1 Timothy 2:11-12. Therefore, Paul tells women to be silent when tongues and prophecy are being interpreted so that they will not be disobeying God’s Word.

[ courtesy of gotquestions.org ]